1. Which of the following features of Development Administration are shared by New Public Administration ?
1. Effective coordination
2. Change orientation
3. Temporal dimension
4. Goal orientation
5. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : According to Riggs, the prismatic society is characterised by a higher degree of formalism.
Reason (R) : According to him the fused and diffracted societies have relatively high degree of realism.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

3. John T. Dorsey's model of Comparative Public Administration is known as—
(A) Prismatic Model Revisited
(B) Public Choice Model
(C) Information Energy Model
(D) Communication Model

4. Comparative Public Administration lays focus on—
1. Scientific vigour to analysis
2. Emphasis on normative considerations
3. Administrative problems of developing countries
4. Relations with culture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Development administration is concerned with goaloriented administrative system.
Reason (R) : Development administration needs restructuring of administrative system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

6. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Prismatic society—Poly functionalism
(B) Fused society—Selectivism
(C) Diffracted society—Functional specificity
(D) Fused society—Ascription

7. Identify in the following the incorrect statement about the SALA in a prismatic society—
(A) It has close relations with Clects
(B) It sometimes functions like a clect itself
(C) It pays lip service to achievements
(D) It represents an 'Ideal type' bureaucratic sub-system of Weber

8. Which one of the following has stated that 'the comparative aspects of public administration have largely been ignored; and as long as the study of public administration is not comparative, claim for a science of public administration round rather hollow' ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Woodrow Wilson

9. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for the Structural-Functional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally diffused, functionally specific and intermediate societies can not be compared.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

10. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of a Prismatic Society ?
(A) Poly normativism
(B) Overlapping
(C) Institutionalisation
(D) Elite domination

11. After abolishing the 'Patronage system' as method of recruitment to civil service, the system of open competition was introduced by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1754
(B) Regulatory Act of 1773
(C) Charter Act of 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1853

12. Position classification bases itself on some of the following considerations—
1. Duties
2. Responsibilities
3. Wages
4. Qualification
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

13. Which of the following are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : The role of the civil service in the developing society has to be dynamics.
Reason (R) : The nature of the policy determines the role of the civil service.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

15. Which one of the following has recommended total ban on strikes by civil servants ?
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Third Pay Commission
(C) Gorwala Committee
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Aptitude Tests
(b) Personality Tests
(c) Ability Tests
(d) Achievement Tests
List-II
1. They are used for testing the general mental ability and mental make-up of the candidates.
2. They are used for filling up clerical positions in the USA and defence positions in U.K.
3. They are academic qualifications laid down for competing in the recruitment examination
4. They are used to test the personality of the applicants.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 2 4 3 1

17. Which one of the following principles is the counterpart of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility ?
(A) Neutrality
(B) Impersonality
(C) Integrity
(D) Anonymity

18. Which of the following are safeguards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority
2. Just and efficient personnel management
3. Centralisation of authority
4. Effective control of the Parliament and the Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

20. The main characteristic of induction training is that, this is given—
(A) Before the selection of a candidate
(B) Before assumption of responsibility by the candidate
(C) When the official is in the mid of his service
(D) When the official is about to be promoted

21. The 18 weeks' Training Programme organised for fresh recruits of Combined Civil Services is known as—
(A) Professional Training Programme
(B) Administrative Training Programme
(C) In-Service Training Programme
(D) Foundational Training Programme

22. Identify in the following the correct sequence of different steps in recruitment process—
(A) Induction, Selection, Probation and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induction and Appointment

23. Money Bill does not include—
1. Imposition of fines.
2. Demands of fees for licences.
3. Imposition of any tax by a local authority for a local purpose.
4. Abolition or remission of tax by a local authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

24. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Performance budgeting is a better option for developing countries.
Reason (R) : Performance budgeting is a different type of budgeting.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

25. Which of the following are the advantages of zero-based budgeting ?
1. It eliminates low priority programme.
2. It improves programme effectiveness dramatically.
3. It brings out the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It makes the highest impact programmes in order to obtain more finances.
5. It reduces the tax increases.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5

26. Budget—
1. Gives a national perspective.
2. Incorporates plans, programmes and projects.
3. Reflects political ideology of the ruling party (parties).
4. Is a statement of commitments.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Money Bill
(c) Annual Financial Statement
(d) Contingency Fund of India
List-II
1. Article 110
2. Article 267
3. Article 266
4. Article 265
5. Article 112
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 5 4
(C) 4 3 2 5
(D) 3 1 5 2

28. Which one of the following statements about Audit is correct ?
(A) The Propriety audit and Efficiency audit are discretionary
(B) The Regulatory audit is not statutory
(C) The Appropriation audit goes beyond the legality of transactons
(D) The Performance audit follows regulatory audit

29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

30. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from different ministries—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above

31. Select the correct sequence of the following stages of budget formulation by using the codes given at the end—
1. General discussion
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Annual Financial Statement
4. Finance Bill
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

32. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Vote on Account—Advances from Contingency Fund of India
2. Votes on Credit—Grants in advance before the passing of the budget
3. Supplementary Grants—Amount provided when found insufficient
4. Exceptional Grants—Grants which are not a part of current service
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. Statutory audit in India is threefold.
Which of the following are in those three ?
1. Accountancy
2. Administrative
3. Appropriation
4. Physical
5. Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3 and 4

34. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Parliament exercises control over government expenditure through inhouse debates, discussions on the budget and its passage.
Reason (R) : Quite a few times Budget has been passed by the Parliament without having any discussion on it.
In the context of the above,which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

35. The techniques of citizen's control over administration include—
1. Election
2. Public Opinion
3. Pressure Groups
4. Political Parties
5. Recall
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5

36. Which of the following are the means of judicial control over administration ?
1. Suits against government
2. Judicial Review
3. Rule of Law
4. Statutory appeal
5. Droit Administratiff
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 5
(D) 2, 4 and 5

37. The first Committee to recommend for the establishment of an Ombudsman type of institution in India was—
(A) Gorwala Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Kriplani Committee
(D) Administrative Reform Commission

38. Which one of the following is not a tool of legislative control over administration ?
(A) Debates and Discussion
(B) Passage of Budget
(C) Censure Motion
(D) Presidential Message to the House

39. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Parliamentary control over the execution has weakened for some years now.
Reason (R) : The Parliament's control over the Executive is not necessary.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

40. In order to keep effective control over administration, the people should necessarily—
(A) Be highly educated
(B) Have higher political awareness
(C) Have knowledge of public administration
(D) Have enough knowledge of administrative principles

41. Which of the following are included in the mechanism of control by the Indian Parliament over public finance ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Budget
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

42. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : It is the function of judiciary to ensure that the civil service functions within the limits of law.
Reason (R) : The judicial control over civil service is expensive and complicated.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

43. Who amongst the following Prime Ministers has the distinction of facing maximum number of 'No Confidence' Motion ?
(A) Shri Morarji Desai
(B) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(C) Shri P. V. Narsimha Rao
(D) Shri Rajiv Gandhi

44. Each Ministry's related Standing Committee of the Indian Parliament has—
(A) 20 Members from Lok Sabha and 10 M
(B) 30 Members from Lok Sabha and 15 Members from Rajya Sabh
(C) 45 Members from Rajya Sabha only
(D) 40 Members from Rajya Sabha only

45. The Vice President of India is elected by—
(A) Members of both Houses of Indian Parliament
(B) Elected Members of Rajya Sabha only
(C) Members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of States
(D) Members of Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of State

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Bicameral System
(b) Legislative Devolution
(c) Separate Electorate
(d) Provincial Autonomy
List-II
1. Government of India Act, 1935
2. Indian Council Act of 1861
3. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
4. Inidan Council Act of 1892
5. Minto-Morley Reforms
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 3 2 5 1
(D) 5 4 3 2

47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Coalition governments have made the priority of the Prime Minister rather weak.
Reason (R) : The Prime Minister has little control over the coalition partners.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

48. Which one of the following is not a Cabinet Committee ?
(A) Political Affairs Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Appointment Committee
(D) Economic Affairs Committee

49. The Committee on subordinate legislation examines all Bills delegating legislative powers. Which one of the following it does not ensure ?
(A) There is no intention to impose taxes
(B) There is no involvement of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) There is no bar on the jurisdiction of judiciary
(D) There is no delay in laying them before the House

50. Which of the following are the Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to 'hire and fire' the Governor is exclusively with the President.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

52. The Finance Commission of India, appointed by the President after a gap of five years.
1. Is a non-statutory institution.
2. Makes recommendations to the President about distribution of financial resources between Centre and States.
3. Makes recommendations about sharing of taxes between Centre and States.
4. Assesses the needs of development in the States and consequent fund allocation.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

53. For the first time, the 'Portfolio' system in the Government of India was introduced in the year 1859 by—
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Macaulay
(C) Lord Wellesley
(D) Lord Canning

54. The office of the Cabinet Secretary of the Union Government was first created in the year—
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1950

55. Formal training in India is concerned with—
1. Improving the skills
2. Exchange of experiences
3. Provision for better wage
4. Breaking job monotony
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Customs and Central Excise Training School
(b) National Police Academy
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service Staff Training College
(d) Railway Staff College
List-II
1. Hyderabad
2. New Delhi
3. Baroda
4. Shimla
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3

57. Which one of the following statements about training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development
(B) Training can be only formal
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel
(D) It helps in raising the morals of personnel

58. Which of the following statements relating to specialist administrators are correct ?
1. They are specialists in their professional area.
2. They are all rounders in the administration of a State.
3. They bring efficiency in specific administrative branches.
4. They perform more of a generalist's functions when they move up in the hierarchy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

59. Recruitment to the lower ranks of civil services is made by the—
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

60. Administrative Reforms Commission of India suggested that—
(A) All India Services should be abolished
(B) Recruitment to All India Services should be from State Services only
(C) Eight All India Services should be constituted on functional basis
(D) Generalism should be replaced by specialism in recruitment to All India Service

61. The Minister should defend his Secretary when—
1. He executes the clear orders of the Minister
2. He functions according to the policy directive of the Minister
3. He makes a genuine mistake and tells the Minister
4. He takes an action without the approval of the Minister and does not tell him.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

62. The Union Public Service Commission functions according to the—
1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Regulations framed as per law.
4. Rulings of the Supreme Court
Select the corrrect answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

63. The Minister – Civil Servant relationship is based on—
1. Mutual courtesy
2. Mutual obligation
3. Mutual understanding
4. Mutual cooperation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

64. A No Confidence Motion against the Mayor of a Municipal Corporation in U.P. can be carried ony by a—
(A) 3/4 majority of members
(B) 2/3 majority of members
(C) Simple majority of members
(D) 1/3 majority of members

65. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has provided that there should be a Council of Ministers in every State ?
(A) Article 160(i)
(B) Article 162(i)
(C) Article 163(i)
(D) Article 168(i)

66. 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution apply to all the States except—
1. J & K
2. Meghalaya
3. Nagaland
4. National Capital Territory of Delhi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in development has decreased for sometime now.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : The discretionary powers of the Governors have created controversies on certain occasions.
Reason (R) : The Governors are supposed to be above party politics.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

69. The crime graph in the State rises because of—
1. Political-Criminal nexus
2. Police-Criminal nexus
3. Majority of accused being acquitted.
4. More coverage by the media.
5. More F.I.R., being lodged.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) All the above

70. Mayor, Deputy Mayor and Members of a Municipal Corporation in U.P. shall vacate their respective seats when—
(A) They are elected to Parliament or State Legislature
(B) They are nominated to Parliament or State Legislature
(C) Information of their election/nomination is first published in the Official Gazette
(D) Municipal Corporation holds its first meeting thereafter

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Old Nomenclature)
(a) Mukhya Nagar Adhikari
(b) Upa Nagar Adhikari
(c) Nagar Pramukh
(d) Sabhasad
List-II (New Nomenclature in U.P.)
1. Nagar Pramukh
2. Municipal Commissioner
3. Deputy Municipal Commissioner
4. Mahapaur
5. Parshad
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 5
(C) 3 4 5 2
(D) 4 3 2 1

72. Seventy Third Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for the following—
1. Constitutional States to local bodies
2. One-third reservation for women
3. A separate list of subjects
4. A separate ministry
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

73. In the years 1720 and 1793 respectively Municipal Corporations were established in—
(A) Calcutta and Bombay
(B) Madras and Delhi
(C) Bombay and Calcutta
(D) Delhi and Calcutta

74. Which one of the following is not considered important in democratic decentralisation ?
(A) Financial autonomy
(B) Administrative freedom
(C) Control of the Centre
(D) Political autonomy

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Committees)
(a) Study Team on the position of Gram Sabha in Panchayati Raj Movement
(b) Study Team on Panchayati Raj Administration
(c) Committee on Panchayati Raj Elections
(d) Evaluation Committee on Panchayati Raj Training Centers
List-II (Chairman)
1. K. Santhanam
2. G. Ramchandran
3. R. R. Diwakar
4. V. Iswaran
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 2 4

76. Which of the following roles are played by the Chief Secretary in the State Government in normal situations ?
1. Principal Advisor to the Chief Minister
2. Adviser to the Cabinet
3. Adviser to the Governor
4. Coordinator of the administration at the State level
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

77. The main responsibility of a Directorate in a State administration is to—
(A) Evaluate policies and programmes
(B) Implement policies
(C) Review policies
(D) Formulate policies

78. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in Modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State
2. Scientific and technological advancements
3. Rapid increase in population
4. Economic planning
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : "The distinction between Public and Private Administration is narrowing down."
Reason (R) : "The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach."
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

80. Administration does not include—
(A) Group activity
(B) Cooperation among members of the group
(C) Coordination among the activities of participants
(D) Equal participation of all the members of the group

81. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detailed and systematic application of laws.
Reason (R) : According to him every particular application of law is not an act of administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Management
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society
List-II
1. Uriwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4

83. Which one of the following believed that "administration essentially involved reconciliation, involving individuals as well as social groups" ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbart Simon
(D) M. P. Follet

84. Which one of the following is the most ancient approach to the study of Public Administration ?
(A) Legal Approach
(B) Philosophical Approach
(C) Historical Approach
(D) Case-method Approach

85. Which one of the following is the ultimate test of public administration ?
(A) Successful implementation of rules
(B) Simplification of rules
(C) Maximisation of human welfare
(D) Regulating administrative affairs

86. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Private Administration and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
List-I (Views of)
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josiah Stamp
(c) Hebert Simon
(d) Peter Drukcer
List-II (Difference on account of)
1. Red-Tape
2. Performance Management
3. Public Accountability
4. Service Motive
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2

87. Which of the following statements about the scope of public administration are true ?
1. POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. POSDCORB view is 'subject oriented'.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

88. 'Crisis of identity' as a stage in the evolution of Public Administration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940-47
(B) 1948-70
(C) 1971-90
(D) 1991 onwards

89. Who of the following has said that 'Public Administration is a cooperative group effort in public settings' ?
(A) Dimock
(B) A. Felix
(C) Pfiffner
(D) F. A. Nigro

90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Hebert Simon
(b) Chester Barnard
(c) L. D. White
(d) F. M. Marx
List-II
1. Functions of the Executive
2. Introduction to the study of
Public Administration
3. Administrative Behaviour
4. Elements of Public Administration
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 2 4 1 3

91. Which one of the following is not the organisational barrier in delegation ?
(A) Tightly controlled and centralized management system
(B) Inexperienced and ill trained-employees
(C) Size and location of the organisation
(D) Fear of superiors that subordinates are incapable of making proper decision

92. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the 'authority belongs to the job and stays with the job' ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Charter Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet

93. In the writings of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

94. The elements included in the Human Relations Theory of Organisation are—
1. Individual
2. Formal organisation
3. Informal organisation
4. Participative management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

95. Behavioural approach is called also as—
1. New Human Relations Approach
2. Socio – psychological Approach
3. Socio-economic Approach
4. Psycho-analytic Approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. The principle of 'Unity of Command'—
(A) Contradicts the principle of specialisation
(B) Is opposed to 'Functional Foremanship'
(C) Is affected by plural bodies like Boards and 'Commis-sions'
(D) Will not break down if an employee receives multiple orders from several superiors

97. Which one of the following is the essence of scalar principle ?
(A) Authority
(B) Power
(C) Centralisation of power
(D) Delegation of authority

98. Which one of the following statements about 'Responsibility' is not correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obligation of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility are the same thing
(D) Ultimate responsibility cannot be delegated

99. An organisational unit playing the role of planner, researcher and coordinator is known as—
(A) Line
(B) Staff
(C) Auxiliary
(D) Executive

100. Span of control stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

101. Who of the following called organisational theory in the context of Public Administra-tion 'an elephantine problem' ?
(A) D. Waldo
(B) Max Weber
(C) A. Wildovsky
(D) Herbert Simon

102. Which one of the following is not an advantage of hierarchy ?
(A) It promotes division of labour and specialisation of work
(B) It removes confusion, conflict and friction
(C) It provides channels of command, control and communication
(D) It encourages Red-tapism

103. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Administrative decision in government cannot possibly be evaluated all the time through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

104. In which of the following situations coordination becomes necessary ?
1. Independent units
2. Delegation of authority
3. Inter-related units
4. Work distribution amongst specialists
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

105. The basic parts included in a system are—
1. input
2. process
3. output
4. cohesiveness
5. feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5

106. Who of the following has made the following statement ?
'Decision-making in government is a plural activity.'
(A) Terry
(B) Groves
(C) Suckler-Hudson
(D) Simon

107. Weber's bureaucratic model has been criticised as being—
1. a mechanistic theory
2. an open system model
3. responsible for displacement of goals
4. rigid, formalistic and ritualistic
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Disjointed incrementalism
(b) Fact-Value dichotomy
(c) Rejection of Politics-administration dichotomy
(d) Ballot-box democracy
List-II
1. C. Lindblom
2. L. Gulick
3. H. Simon
4. M. P. Follet
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 4 2 3

109. 'In all problem of management the human element is the most important one.'
Whose words are these ?
(A) F. W. Taylor
(B) M. P. Follet
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Henri L. Gant

110. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction between 'power' and 'authority' ?
(A) M. P. Follet
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow

111. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The Practice of Management
(b) Motivation and Personality
(c) The Human Side of Enterprise
(d) Work and the Nature of Man
List-II
1. Herzberg
2. McGregor
3. Drucker
4. Maslow
5. Alderfer
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 5
(B) 5 1 4 2
(C) 5 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

112. 'Administrative Man' model represents the real situation of—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Administrative behaviour

113. Which one of the following statements is 'not' applicable to Herbert Simon's decisionmaking theory ?
(A) Administrative man maximises
(B) Factual element can be evaluated
(C) Most decisions are composite
(D) Decisions can be influenced

114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Communication
(b) Hierarchy of need
(c) Leadership
(d) Theory 'X' and Theory 'Y'
List-II
1. Barnard
2. Tead
3. Maslow
4. McGregor
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 2 3 1

115. Which of the following factors are responsible for bounded rationality leading to satisfying decisions ?
1. Dynamic nature of objectives
2. Availability of adequate information
3. Time and cost constraints
4. Personal factors of the decision makers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

116. Which one of the following is not an approach to 'leadership' ?
(A) Great man Approach
(B) Trait Approach
(C) Behavioural Approach
(D) Human Relation Approach

117. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Maslow's hierarchy of needs is divided into two parts – lower order needs and higher order needs.
Reason (R) : Lower order needs receive low priority and higher order needs receive high priority by management.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

118. Which one of the following thinkers propounded the 'expectancy theory' of motivation ?
(A) Maslow
(B) Victor Vroom
(C) Evans and House
(D) McGregor

119. Feedback in an organisation is received through—
1. Vertical communication
2. Official records
3. External communication
4. Horizontal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

120. Who of the following has said that leadership performs the control function in management ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Urwick
(C) Munro
(D) Terry

Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C)
4. (*) None of the given options are correct, as the Comparative Public Administration (CPA) is opposed to normative considerations, which is included in all the options given in the question. Infact, the CPA lays emphasis on empirical studies.
5. (A)
6. (B) Selectivism is the characteristic of prismatic society, which is opposed to the particularism of fused society and
universalism of diffracted society.
7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (D)
12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B)
17. (D) Under the system of ministerial responsibility, the concerned minister is responsible to the legislature for the omissions and commissions of their subordinate officials. Thus, the administrative officers maintain the position of anonymity.
18. (C) The centralisation of authority would not check the evils of bureaucracy but, on the contrary, would provide opportunity for the abuse of authority by bureaucrates.
19. (A)
20. (B) The training which is given to the prospective candidates is known as pre-entry training.
21. (D) 22. (B)
23. (D) The matters coming under the perview of Money Bill are given in Article 110 of the Constitution; which does not include all the four matters given in the question. Thus, the imposition of fine and pees for licences and imposition or abolition of a tax by a local authority come under the perview of Finance Bill, which is distinct from Money Bill.
24. (B)
25. (C) It is in the Performance Budgeting (not in zero-based Budgeting) that the programmes and accomplishment are
brought about in financial and physical terms.
26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (A)
30. (D) In the process of preparation of Budget, the individual departments are required to submit the following figures to the finance ministry—
1. Actual figures of the previous and current years.
2. Sanctioned and revised estimates of the currents year.
3. Proposed estimates for the next year.
4. Actuals for the corresponding period of the previous year.
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (B)
37. (B) The Santhanam Committee headed by parliamentarian, K. Santhanam and consisting of two M.P.s and two civil servents was appointed by the Govt. of India in 1962 to recommend measures for the prevention of corruption among the civil servents. The committee in its report submitted in 1964, recommended establishment of an Ombudsman like institution in India.
38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B)
44. (B) The 17 standing committees, separately for each department, were created by the Parliament in 1993 to scrutinise the Demands for Grants of various departments, before these are discussed and voted in the House.
45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B)
49. (*) None of the options appears correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation ensures all the matters given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the questions. (See page 152, our Parliament' by Subhash Kashyap)
50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (B)
57. (B) The training can be both formal and informal. Informal training means learning some skills and experience while doing the job, without joining any formal training programme.
58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (C) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (A)
68. (A) 69. (D) 70. (C) 71. (B)
72. (B) The 73rd Constitution Amendment does not provide for the creation of a separate ministry for local bodies. However, many states, even central government, have created separate ministries dealing with the affairs of local bodies.
73. (C)
74. (C) The democratic decentralization entails autonomy in the financial, administrative and political fields. The control of the centre goes against the idea of democratic decentralisation. Panchayati Raj institutions in India are the example of democratic decentralisation.
75. (C) The study team on Panchayati Raj Administration was set up in 1961, the study team on position of Gramsabha in 1963, Committee on Panchayati Raj Elections in 1965 and the Committee on Panchayati Raj Training Centres was set up in 1966.
76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C)
80. (D) The administration is a coordinated group activity to achieve a definite objective. It does not necessarily means equal participation of all members of a group.
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (C)
91. (D) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (D)
101. (A) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (B)
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (C) 115. (C) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (C) 120. (A)