Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 300

1. Which of the following index numbers satisfies both time-reversal test and
factor-reversal test?
(a) laspeyre's index number
(b) Paasche's index number
(c) Fisher's index number
(d Drobish and Browley index number
2. Match list 1 (r value) with List II (Interpretation) and select the correct
answer using the code give below the lists
List 1 List II
A. 0.26 I. High negative relation
B. -0.35 2. Low positive relation
C. 0.89 3. High positive relation
D. 0.98 4. Low negative relation
5. No relation
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 I 5 2 (b) 2 4 I 3
(c) 2 I 5 3 (d) 3 4 I 2
3. Consider the following statements about range
1. It is a measure of variability.
2. It is very easy to calculate.
3. It is not influenced by the extreme values.
4. It is not based on all the observations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) J only (b) I and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) I, 2 and 4
4. The average consumption expenditure of 100 families is Rs. 1500 and the
variance in consumption expenditure is 90.What is the coefficient of
variation in consumption expenditure?.
(a) 0.6 (b) 2
(c) 6 (d) 9
5. When is the average deviation minimum?
(a) When deviations are taken from the moving averages
(b) When deviations are taken from the arithmetic mean
(c) When deviations are taken from the mode
(d) When deviations are taken from the median
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6.
What is the correct sequence of variability in descending order of magnitude in
the Lorenz curve of income distribution of three groups (A, Band C) of persons
given above?
(a) A - B - C (b) B - C - A
(c) C-A-B (d) C-B-A
7. Match List I (Measures of Dispersion) with List II (Characteristics) and
select the correct answer using the code. given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Range 1. Relative measure of dispersion
B. Variance 2. Uses limited information
C. Coefficient of variation 3. Standard deviation
D. Inter-quartile range 4. Lower than range
5. Greater than range
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 I 4 (b) 1 4 5 3
(c) 2 4 1 3' (d) I 3 5 4
8. In Arthur Lewis's model, the surplus of output over wages paid is
reinvested. Which of the following does this lead to ?
1. Increase in output.
2. Increase in labour productivity. 3. Increase in employment..
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Let EERx and EERm denote the effective exchange rates, respectively, for
exports and imports. A country is said to be following an import-substituting
strategy of development if
(a) EERx> EERm (b) EERx < EERm
(c) EERx> 1 (d) EERm> I
10. In the initial stages of planned development starting from its Second Five
Year Plan, the strategy of development adopted by India was based on
which of the following?
1. Heavy industries 2. Export promotion
3. Light industries 4. Import substitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below':
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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) I and 4 (d) 2 and 3
11. The targeted growth rate of income for an economy is 8% per annum. The
capital-output ratio is assumed to be 3.5 : 1.The domestic savings generated
are 25% of income in the economy. What is the current account deficit
consistent with the targeted growth rate?
(a) 2% of income (b) 3% of income
(c) 3.5% of income (d) 4% of income
12. The static argument for free trade ignores certain factors with dynamic
implication to welfare. Which are such factors?
1. Learning by doing.
2. Spillover to other industries. 3. Increasing returns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) I and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) I, 2 and 3
13. which one of the following sequences correctly depicts " the
vicious circle of
poverty?
(a) Low income - low investment - low demand – capital deficiency
(b) Low investment - low income - low demand – capital deficiency
(c) Low investment - low income - low savings – capital deficiency.
(d) Low income - low demand - low investment – capital deficiency' ,
14. In the Harrod's model of growth, if GA = 10% and Gw = 8%; what will this
lead to ?
(a) Boom (b) Deflation,
(c) Recession (d) Unemployment
15. The World Bank's Environmentally Sustainable Development Division has
developed Green Index. Which one of the following is not a constituent of
this index?
(a) Produced assets (b) Natural resources
(c) Social assets' (d) Human assets
16. According to population experts, the possible demographic bonus may
accrue to India by 2016 A.D. Which phenomenon are they referring to ?
(a) A sharp drop in the total population
(b) A well-balanced sex ratio
(c) A decline in both birth and death 'rates
(d) A surge in the population in the productive age group
17. 'What is the long-term objective of National Population Policy (NPP), 2000 ?
(a) To bring the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels
(b) To achieve a stable population at a level consistent with the requirement of
sustainable economic growth
(c) To address the unmet needs for contraception;
(d) To cover the entire population in the reproductive age I with contraceptive
and health care '
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18. According to the 2001 Census, what is the total work participation rate in
India?
(a) 37,.64% (b) 39.3%
(c) 43.1% (d) 46.9%
19. Which variable is not included in the calculation of composite RDI by
UNDP?
(a) Adjusted real GDP per capita (PPP$ Index)
(b) A deprivation index
(c) Life expectancy index'
(d) Educational attainment index
20. Which one of the following exhibits the feature of occupational distribution
of population in India according to the 2001 Census?
(a) Rapidly increasing importance of secondary and tertiary sectors and relative
stability of the primary sector
(b) Rapidly increasing importance of primary sector
(c) Rapidly declining importance of primary sector and increasing importance of
tertiary sector
(d) Relative stability of all three sectors – primary, secondary and tertiary
21. Why is social and economic dualism so pronounced in India?
(a) Poor adoption of technology in certain productive sectors of the economy
(b) Sectoral disparity in investment
(c) Lacunae in policy framework in social and economic sectors
(d) Inadequate financial supply to the core sectors of the economy
22. Consider the following statements:
New strategy adopted by the Government of India in Tenth Plan for alleviating
poverty relates to
1. income generation orientation, by way of mobilizing savings and developing
the self-help groups.
2. distribution of assets and providing cheap loan.
3. employment orientation by way of food for work.
4. enhancing public investment in agriculture sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,.2, 3 and 4
23. Which sector in India has got maximum amount (US $ million) of external
commercial borrowings approvals as for 2003-04 ? .
(a) Financial Institutions (b) Power
(c) Telecom (d) Others including exports
24. Which one of the following is the share of India's exports in world trade in
2003 (%)?
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.8
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5
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25.
Table: Balance of Payments of India
(Rs. Crores)
No. Item 1990-91 2000-01
1. Imports 50,086 270,663
2. Exports 33,153 205,287
3. Trade Balance -16,933 - 65,376
4. Invisible (Net) -433 53,945
5. Current Account (NET) - 17,366 -11,431
From the Table, can it be concluded that there is a decline in the
current account
deficit of the country during the period 1990-91 to 2000-01 ?
(a) No, since imports are greater than exports
(b) Yes, since exports of goods increased more than the imports of goods
(c) No, since imports of goods increased more than the exports of goods
(d) Yes, since there is an increase in net invisible earnings
26. Which one of the following items has the highest growth rate in U.S. $ of
exports from India during 2003-04 ?
(a) Gems and jewelry
(b) Textiles including Ready Made Garments (RMG)
(c) Engineering goods
(d) Chemicals and related products
27. Consider the following statements:
What does the current account of payments of India consist of ?
1. Visible balance of trade (merchandise).
2. Services: tourism, transport, software service.
3. Portfolio investment: loans, banking capital, NRI deposits.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
28. Match List I (Types of Investments) with List II (Nature of Investment) and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
A. Direct foreign investment
B. Foreign portfolio investment
C. Commercial Loans
D. Foreign Institutional assistance
List II
1. Purchase of the country's stocks,
bonds and currencies by
foreigners
2. Investments in productive assets
of the country by foreigners
3. Raising loans from foreign
financial institutions
4. Provision of financial by
assistance a foreign government
/institution
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A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 I 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
29. Match List I (Year of launching) with List II (Scheme) and select
the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
A. 1999
B. 1994
C. 2001
D. 2000
List II
1. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
2. District Rural Industrial Project
3. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
4. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
5. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 1 5 2
(b) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 5 1 2
30. Which one of the following is not the reason for generation and perpetration
of inequalities of income and wealth?
(a) Skewed distribution of means of production
(b) Rural-urban disparities
(c) Ineffective government control
(d) Support base of the government
31. In a closed economy model, consider a situation where MPC rises from 0.8
to 0.9, and the rate of proportional income tax rises from 0. I to 0.2. How
does the investment multiplier change?
(a) It rises from 25/7 to 5 (b) It falls from 5 to 2517
(c) It does not change (d) It falls from 25/7 to 3
32.
S
I0 I
0
Which of the .following statements are correct in respect of the figure given
above?
1. Investment is autonomous.
2. Saving does not depend on income.
3. Saving-income relationship is linear.
4. Investment depends on income.
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) I and 3 (d) 3 and 4
33. In a Keynesian two-sector model with consumption dependent on income
and a given autonomous investment, what will an increase in propensity to
save lead to?
(a) Decrease in income and decrease in savings
(b) Decrease in income with unchanged savings
(c) Increase in income with increase in savings
(d) Increase in income with unchanged savings
34. Consumption and saving functions are given as :
C= 100 + 0.2Y
S = -100 + 0.8Y
What is the value of the investment multiplier?
(a) 80 (b) 50
(c) 5. (d) 1.25
35. Consider the following statements:
According to the Neo-classical theory of investment, higher the rental cost of
capital,
1. lower is the real interest rate.
2. lower is the depreciation rate of capital.
3. higher is the real interest rate.
4. higher is the depreciation rate of capital.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
36. Consumption function is given as :
C = 20 + 0.54Y
What is the corresponding saving function?
(a) S = 20 + 0.46Y
(b) S = -20 + 0.46Y
(c) S = -20 - 0.46Y
(d) S = -20 + 0.54Y
37. Consider the following statements:
According to the life-cycle hypothesis, assuming a linear consumption function,
other things remaining the same, an increase in life expectancy will
I. increase the marginal propensity to consume.
2. decrease the marginal propensity to consume.
3. leave the marginal propensity to consume unchanged
4. decrease the average propensity to consume.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
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(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
38.
LM
. P
0
In the diagram given above, what does the point P indicate? '
(a) Excess demand in the goods market
(b) Excess supply in the goods market
(c) Excess demand in the money market
(d) Equilibrium rate of interest and income
39. According to Milton Friedman, an increase in the growth rate of money
stock will
(a) Only lower the nominal interest rate
(b) Only raise the nominal interest rate
(c) At first lower the nominal rate of interest, but eventually raise
the rate of
inflation and the nominal rate of interest, never affecting the growth rate of
output
(d) At first lower the nominal rate of interest and raise the rate of
inflation and
the rate of growth of output, but eventually only raise the rate of
inflation and
the nominal rate of interest
40. Liquidity preference function has different regions.
What is its interest elasticity in the region of liquidity trap?
(a) Infinity (b) Between 0 and I
(c) Unity (d) Zero
41. What is the correct logical sequence of the following?
1. Households and business find that they have excess money balances.
2. Interest rates on securities drop, and/or prices of goods and
services increase.
3. Demand for securities and/or goods and service Increases.
4. Net inflow of remittances from abroad increases the domestic money supply.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 4 - 3 - I - 2 (b) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4
(c) 4- 1 - 3 - 2 (d) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
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42. Which of the following does not give rise to transaction demand for money?
(a) Households to purchase food
(b) Firms to pay wages
(c) Firms to pay purchase raw materials
(d) Subsistence producers who consume their entire output
43. When does the central bank increase the minimum statutory cash reserve
ratio of the commercial banks?
I. When the economy is in deflationary condition.
2. When the economy is experiencing inflation.
3. When the central bank aims credit expansion.
4. When the central bank aims credit contraction.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
44. A central bank uses the followil1g methods of credit control:
1. Bank rate policy.
2. Open market operations.
3. Variable reserve ratio.
4. Fixation of margin requirement.
Which of the above methods are included in the category of quantitative methods
of credit control?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
45.
In the diagram given above, Yo and Po indicate income and price of the initial
equilibrium, respectively, while Y1 and P1 denote the new equilibrium of income
and price, respectively. DD is the demand curve; So and S1 denote the
initial and
new supply curves, respectively. What type of inflation is indicated?
(a) Demand-pull inflation (b) Cost-push inflation
(c) Mark-up inflation (d) Hyper inflation
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46. What does the term 'benign inflation' imply?
(a) A mild rate of inflation (b) An unexpected inflation
(c) A mark-up inflation (d) A spiraling inflation
47. Match List I (Type of Income Determination) with List II (Fiscal Multiplier)
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 5 4
(c) 4 2 5 3 (d) 3 f 2 4
48. Which of the following are considered as All India Financial Institutions
(AlFIs)?
1. Five all-India development banks.
2. Two specialized financial institutions.
3. Six investment institutions.
4. ICICI and UTI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only . (d) 2 and 4
49. Consider the following statements regarding Collateralized Borrowing and
Lending obligation (CBLO) - a recent product of Clearing Corporation of
India (CCIL):
1. The CBLO is like a repo, i.e., it can be interpreted as borrowing backed by
securities as collateral.
2. Issued at a discount to face value, CBLOs always redeem at par, similar to
treasury bills or zero coupon bonds. .
3. Its maturities range from 1 year to 5 years. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
50. Which one of the following features of the Real Time Gross Settlement
(RTGS) system is not correct?
(a) Payments are settled transaction by transaction
(b) Settlement of funds is revocable
(c) Settlement is done in real time
(d) It is a fully secure system which uses digital signatures and
public encryption
for safe and secure message transmission
51. When was the first countrywide Economic Survey undertaken by the
Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) ?
(a) 1970 (b) 1974
(c) 1977 (d) 1982
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Non-banking financial entities comprise Non banking financial companies
(NBFCs), Mutual benefit financial companies, and Mutual Benefit companies
2. Non-banking financial entities are regulated in India by Department of
Company Affairs.
3. Rates offered by NBFCs on NRI depositst cannot exceed those prescribed for
Scheduled Commercial Banks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Consider the following factors:
1. Equity capital 2. Re-invested earnings
3. Other direct capital .
According to the RBI, definition of FDI includes which of the above categories
of capital flows?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
54. In the year 2003-04, to which of the following regions were India's total
exports in dollar terms the largest?
(a) West Europe (b) Asia and Oceania
(c) Latin American countries (d) Africa
55. Under the new defined contribution pension system for new entrants to
Central Government Service (excluding defence services) approved by the
Government, three options are being made available for investment of
funds. Which one of the following is not among these three options?
(a) Investment predominantly in fixed income instruments and some investment
in equity
(b) Greater investment in equity
(c) Equal investment in fixed income and equity instruments
(d) Investment in government bonds only
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Directions: The following 6 (six) items consist of two statements, one
labeled as
the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given
below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
56. Assertion (A) A change of income distribution in favour of profit earners
leads to an increase in growth rate.
Reason (R) Profit earners have a higher propensity to save as compared to
wage earners.
57. Assertion (A) Fisher Index Number is the geometric mean of Laspeyres and
Paasche indices.
Reason (R) It satisfies both time-reversal and factor-reversal tests.
58. Assertion (A) According to the monetary approach, an excess supply of
domestic money is reflected in a deficit in balance of
payments.
Reason (R) According to the monetmy approach, an excess supply of
domestic money induces economic agents to increase
spending.
59. Assertion (A) The burden of a specific tax on .a product produced by a firm
under pure competitive market conditions cannot be shifted on
to the buyers in the short run.
Reason (R) A firm under pure competitive market. conditions is only one
firm among a , large number of firms in the industry of the
product and price is given by the industry.
60. Assertion (A) There would be neither a short-run nor a long-run trade-off
between inflation and unemployment, which can be exploited
by the policy maker for purposes of stabilization through
demand management policies, if the economic agents'
expectations about inflation are rational.
Reason (R) The Rational Expectations hypothesis postulates that economic
agents optimally use all the information they have, including
information about government policies, when forecasting the
future.
61. Assertion (A) There would not be an active role for the government to use
contra-cyclical stabilization policy, if real business cycle
theory provided a valid i explanation of business cycles.
Reason (R) The real business cycle theory asserts that cyclical fluctuations
in output and employment are the result of the optimising
behaviour of economic agents in response to a variety of real
shocks impinging on the economy, with markets adjusting
rapidly and remaining always in equilibrium.
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62. Which one of the following gives the correct relationship between Marginal
Cost (MC) curve and the Average I Cost (AC) curve?
(a) When the AC curve is falling, MC curve is above it.
(b) When both the AC and MC curves are rising, the MC curve rises slowly than
the AC curve.
(c) If the AC curve is U -shaped, then the corresponding MC curve cuts the AC
curve at the minimum point.
(d) If the AC curve shows a constant relationship between the
variables, then the
corresponding MC curve cuts the AC curve at its highest point.
63. Match List I (Concept) with List II (Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
List I List II
A. Long-run average cost curve 1. Excludes fixed costs
B. Isoquant. 2. Relates to constant costs
C. Marginal cost curve 3. Envelope to a series of curves
D. Horizontal supply curve 4. Convex to the origin
5. Concerns total cost
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 l 2 (b) 2 1 5 3
(c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
64. Consider the following statements:
1. Income effect is positive in case of normal goods.
2. Income effect is zero for superior goods.
3. Income effect is negative in case of inferior goods.
4. All Giffen goods are inferior goods, but not all inferior goods are Giffen
goods.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
65. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of
cross elasticity
of demand between two commodities?
(a) When two goods are perfect substitutes, cross elasticity of demand is zero.
(b) When two goods are perfectly independent of each other, cross elasticity of
demand is infinity.
(c) When two goods are complementary, cross elasticity of demand is positive.
(d) When two goods are jointly demanded, cross elasticity of demand is negative.
66. What is the sufficient condition for equilibrium for a perfectly competitive
firm?
(a) Marginal revenue = Marginal cost
(b) Marginal cost surve should cut the marginal revenue curve from below
(c) Marginal cost curve should cut the marginal revenue curve from above
(d) Marginal revenue = Average cost
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67. With which one of the following is the doctrine of excess capacity not
associated?
(a) Perfect competition (b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Monopoly (d) Oligopoly
68. What is the shape of the demand curve for the product of an individual firm
in a competitive market?
(a) Horizontal straight line (b) Downward sloping
(c) Vertical straight line (d) Upward sloping
69. Which of the following are assumed by the product exhaustion theory of
distribution?
I. A linear homogenous production function.
2. Each factor is paid according to its market price.
3. Each factor is paid according to its marginal productivity.
4. There may be any number of factors of production.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and 2 (b) 2' and 3
(c) I, 2 and 3 . (d) I, 3 and 4
70. Which one of the following is correct according to the Ricardian theory ?
(a) Rent is equal to the cost of production of the marginal land
(b) Rent is a pure surplus over and above the cost of production
(c) Rent is equal to the oppurtunity cost of a factor of production
(d) Rent is equal to the market price of a factor of production
71. What are the basic assumptions of Pareto optimality?
I. Consumer maximizes the utility.
2. There should be only two factors of production.
3. There are external economies in production.
4. There is perfect competition in factor and product markets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) I and 4
72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
List I (Economist) List II (Concept / Theory)
A. Kaldor Hicks 1. Social welfare function
B. Bergson Samuelson 2. Natural rate of unemployment
C. Kenneth J. Arrow 3. Impossibility theorem
D. Milton Friedman 4. Compensation criterion
5. Product exhaustion theorem
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 5 4
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73. Match List I (Curve) with List II (Equilibrium) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
List I List II
A. LM curve 1. Equilibrium in labour and money markets
B. AD curve 2. Equilibrium in money market
C. AS curve 3. Equilibrium in labour market
D. IS curve 4. Equilibrium in goods and money market
5. Equilibrium in goods market
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 4 3 2 (b) 2 3 I 5
(c) 5 3 I 2 (d) 2 4 3 5
74. Consider the following statements: If Wicksel's market rate of
interest is higher
than the natural rate of interest, then
1. there would be cumulative inflation.
2. there would be cumulative deflation.
3. Say's law would not hold good.
4. saving would exceed investment, the gap between the two representing net
hoarding of money.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
75. In which of the following situations would an easy money policy be more
effective than an expansionary fiscal policy during a recession?
1. The demand for money is highly interest elastic.
2. The demand for money is interest inelastic.
3. The investment demand is interest elastic.
4. The investment demand is interest inelastic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
76. According to Keynes theory of income determination, other things
remaining same, when is the effect of a given injection in demand on income
higher?
(a) If the ratio of total tax collection to GDP is higher
(b) If the ratio of total tax collection to GDP is lower
(c) If the ratio of incremental tax collection to incremental GDP is higher
(d) If the ratio of incremental tax collection to incremental GDP is lower
77. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerusing the code given
below the lists:
List I (Economist) List II (Concept/theory)
A. Robert Barro I. Real business cycle
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B. Arthur Okun 2. Rational expectations
C. John Muth 3. Econometric policy
D. Robert E. Lucas, Jr. 4. Ricardian equivalence
5. Potential output
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 5 (b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 4 5 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 5
78. Consider an economy with a Cobb Douglas type of production function with
two inputs - capital and labour. The share of capital and labour in total
output are, respectively, 1/3 and 2/3.The rates of growth of capital and
labour are, respectively, 6% and 3% per annum. Neutral technological
progress takes place at the rate of 2% per annum. The rate of growth of
output per unit of labour in this economy is
(a) 2% per annum (b) 3% per annum
(c) 4% per annum (d) 6% per annum
79. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Harrod-Domar model, a country's per capita income growth
rate depends on its rate of savings.
2. According to the Solow model, a country's per capita income growth rate
does not depend on its rate of savings, in the long run.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only' (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
80. Two economies A and B have the same technology, rate of population
growth, rate of capital depriciation, and rate of savings. The rate of
technological progress is also identical in the two economies. The initial
stock of per capita capital is, however, higher in economy B than that in
economy A Which one of the following is correct according to the Solow
model, in the long run?
(a) The level of per capita income in B will be higher than that in A .
(b) The level of per capita income in A will be higher than that in B
(c) The levels of per capita income in the two economies will be the same
(d) It is not possible to infer about the relative levels of per
capita income in the
two economies
81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given
stages in the
Marxian theory of Development?
(a) Feudalism - Capitalism - Socialism - Communism
(b) Feudalism - Capitalism - Communism – Socialism
(c) Capitalism - Feudalism - Socialism – Communism
(d) Capitalism - Feudalism -Communism - Socialism
82. What is the value of the Gini Coefficient for an income distribution
characterized by complete equality of incomes?
(a) Zero (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) Infinity
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83.
OAD and OBD are two income distributions. OBD is the distribution for a
country with median per capita income in a group of countries. What is the
value of Gini Coefficient for distribution OAD?
(a) Area ODA/ Area ODC (b) Area ODA/Area OADC
(c) Area ODA/Area ODB (d) Area ODA/Area OBDC
84. The gross domestic product (GDP) of an economy increased at the rate of
5% per annum. Depriciation in the economy increased at the rate of 0.1%
per annum over a period, whereas the population increased at the rate of
2% per annum. What is the GDP 'per capita increase over the period at the
per annum rate?
(a) 2.4% (b) 2.5%
(c) 2.9% (d) 3.0%
85. Which of the following are not the agreements under the aegis of the World
Trade Organization?
I. Multi Fibre Agreement (MFA)
2. Agreement on Agriculture (AOA)
3. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
4. Agreement on Textiles and Clothing (ATC)
Select the correct answer-using the code given below:
(a) I and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
86. Which one of the following systems best characterizes thc Bretton Woods
system of exchange rates?
(a) Fixed exchange rates
(b) Pegged exchange rates
(c) Adjustably fixed exchange rates
(d) Adjustably pegged exchange rates
87. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Bretton Woods system
was asymmetric in the sense that
(a) it put more pressure on surplus countries to appreciate than on deficit
countries to devalue
(b) it put more pressure on deficit countries to devalue than on
surplus countries
to appreciate
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(c) it put more pressure on surplus countries to devalue than on
deficit countries
to appreciate
(d) it put more pressure on deficit countries to appreciate than on surplus
countries to devalue
88. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing degree of
integration between member countries?
(a) Free Trade Area - Economic Union - Common Market - Custom Union
(b) Common Market - Custom Union - Free Trade Area - Economic Union
(c) Free Trade Area - Custom Union - Common Market - Economic Union
(d) Common Market - Economic Union - Free Trade Area - Custom Union
89. Vhat is the correct sequence of the following events in the Indian context?
1. Introduction of New Economic Policies.
2. Introduction of a Market detemined exchange rate.
3. Adoption of Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System.
4. Acceptance of the IMF Article VIII Obligations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 (b) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
(c) I – 4 – 2 – 3 (d) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
90. Match List I (Measures) with List II (Meaning) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
List I List II
A. Devaluation 1. Decline in the market rate of exchange
B. Depreciation 2. Contraction of home currency
C. Deflation 3. Foreign exchange rationing
D. Exchange Control 4. Contraction of imports
5. Official reduction in external value of the currency
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 I 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 I
(c) 5 3 2 I (d) 2 1 4 3
91. An open economy characterized by perfect wage flexibility, purchasing
power parity and interest rate parity; has excess demand for money. Which
one of the following will it have in accordance with the monetary approach
to balance-of-payments adjustment?
(a) A balance-of-payments deficit
(b) A balance-of-payments surplus
(c) An equilibrium in balance-of-payments.
(d) A current account deficit
92. Let Es denote the elasticity of supply of domestic goods and E'~ denote the
elasticity of supply of foreign goods. Which of the following are assumed in
the derivation of the Marshall-Lerner condition?
1. Es = 0 2. Es = a
3. E*
s ~ = 0 4. E*
s = a
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1 and 3 (b) I and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
93. For which of the following does the condition Ed + Ed > 1 hold? (It may be
noted that Ed is the elasticity of demand for domestic goods and Ed is the
elasticity of demand for foreign goods.)
1. Stability of foreign exchange markets under floating exchange rates.
2. Devaluation to improve trade balance under fixed exchange rates.
3. Complete pass-through of exchange rate changes into domestic inflation
under both floating and fixed exchange rates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
94. Consider the following statements:
A foreign bank may operate in India
1. through its branches
2. as a wholly owned subsidiary.
3. as a subsidiary with aggregate foreign investment up to a maximum of 74%
in a private bank.
4. as a subsidiary with aggregate foreign investment up to a maximum of 49%
in a private bank. .
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 1,2and4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
95. Consider the following with reference to Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS)
1. The amount raised under the MSS is held in a separate identifiable cash
account maintained and operated by the RBI.
2. Government of India unilaterally fixes an annual aggregate ceiling for
treasury bills and/or securities under the MSS.
3. Securities under the MSS are matched by an equivalent cash balance held by
the Government with the RBI. offsetting the monetary impact of accretion to
the RBI's net foreign asset
Which of the above is/are actually the feature(s) of MSS ?
(a) I and 2 (b) I and 3 .
(c) 2 only (d) 1.2 and 3
96. Which one of the following is not a provision of the Fiscal Responsibility &
Budget Management Act, 2003?
(a) Central Government to take appropriate measures to reduce the fiscal deficit
and revenue deficit so as to eliminate revenue deficit by March 31, 2010
(b) Central Government shall not borrow from the RBI except by way of
advances to meet temporary excess of cash disbursements over cash receipts
(c) HBI not to subscribe to the primary issues of the Central Government
securities from the year 2006-07
(d) Central Government to take suitable measures to ensure greater transparency
in its fiscal operations
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97. Consider the following statements:
1. An additional capacity of around 40,000 MW power is proposed to be set up
in the Tenth Five Year Plan.
2. An additional capacity of around 60,000 MW power is proposed to be set up
in the Eleventh Five Year Plan with a stronger focus on nuclear power.
3. The plant load factor has been steadily increasing and reached beyond 70% in
the year 2003-04.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I, 2 and 3 (b) I and 3
(c) I and 2 (d) 2 and 3
98. Which one of the following' is not a criterion for identifying backward
districts as laid down by Planning Commission?
(a) Per-capita industrial output
(b) Ratio of agricultural labour to total population
(c) Number of schools per 1000 of population
(d) Per-capita consumption of electricity
99. The Green Revolution has led to marked increase in which of the following?
I. Regional inequalities
2. Inter-personal inequalities
3. The productivity of wheat
4. The productivity of pulses
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 4 only (b) I. 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) I, 2 and 3
100. Match List I (Name of the Committee) with List II (Purpose of the
Committee) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. C. Rangarajan Committee
B. Omkar Goswalni Committee
C. Vijay Kelkar Committee
D. Vaidyanathan Committee
List II
1. 12th Finance Commission
2. Direct and Indirect tax refonns
3. Industrial Sickness
4. Costing and Pricing of irrigation water
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 2 3 I 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 2 4 1 3
101. Arrange the following items of tax revenue in descending order in terms of
their contribution to the Gross Tax Revenue of the Central Government hi
the year 2003-04: .
1. Income tax 2. Service tax
3. Union Excise Duties 4. Customs Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (b) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2
(c) 2 - 4 - I - 3 (d) 3 - I - 4 - 2
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102. Which one of the following is not the objective of 'Precision Agriculture'?
(a) Maximize crop production
(b) Minimize the environmental damage
(c) Consider spatial variability of land
(d) Better price for the producer
103. Which of the following are the monitorable targets for the Tenth Five Year
Plan?
1. Providing gainful and high quality employment.
2, Accelerating the growth rate of the economy with stable prices. .
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
104. Consider the following statements:
What are the major objectives being aimed at by the Tenth Five Year Plan? .
1. An 8% annual average rate of growth.
2. Enhancement of human well-being.
3. Reduction of poverty ratio to 20% by 2007.
4. Strengthening efforts to build self-reliance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4 . (d) 1, 2 and 4
105. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme was introduced in 1998-99 to improve the
credit delivery to farmers. Which one of the following does not operate this
scheme?
(a) NABARD (b) Co-operative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks (d) Scheduled Commercial Banks
106. The Working Group on the WPI recommended that a Separate Services
Price Index Number should be developed. Which item is not included
initially in this index?
(a) Financial services (b) Administrative services
(c) Transport services (d) Water supply and construction services
107. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Physical planning is more important than financial planning
(b) Financial planning is more important than physical planning
(c) Physical planning and financial planning are equally important
(d) Physical planning and financial planning are complementary
108. Which one of the following is the cause of loss of welfare of a
small country
which impose a tariff on its imports?
(a) Decrease in producer surplus
(b) Decrease in consumer surplus
(c) Change in. terms of trades
(d) Decrease in tariff revenue
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109. Consider a world composed of two large countries A and B.A imposes a
tariff on its imports from B. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Country A necessarily loses in welfare.
2. The world necessarily loses in welfare.
3. Country A may gain in welfare if its terms of trade improve.
4. The world may gain in welfare depending on what happens to the terms of
trade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
1l0. The opportunity cost of producing good X in country A is 3 units of good Y
and that in country B is 5 units of good Y For which one of the following
terms of trade defined as price of X in terms of Y, will both the countries
gain from international trade?
(a) Between 115 and 113
(b) Between 3 and 5
(c) Less than 1/5 or greater than 1/3
(d) Less than 3 or greater than 5
111. Consider a Ricardian model with two countries, A and B and two goods X
and Y The opportunity cost of producing good X in country A is 75/100 in
terms of good Y and that of producing good X in country B is 125/100 in
terms of good Y The international term of trade, defined as the ratio of price
of X to price of Y is given by 125/100.Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) There will be no gains from international trade
(b) There will be gains from trade that will accrue entirely to the country A
(c) There will be gains from trade that will accrue entirely to the country B
(d) There will be gains from trade that will be shared between the countries A
and B
112. Consider a model with two countries (Portugal and England), two goods
(wind and cloth), and two factors (land and capital). Portugal is relatively
abundant in capital and produces cloth but requires a relatively capital
intensive technique of production. According to the Heckscher-Ohlin
theorem
l. Portugal will have a comparative advantage in the production of wine.
2. England will have a comparative advantage in the production of wine.
3. Portugal will have a comparative advantage in the production of cloth.
4. England will have a comparative advantage in the production of cloth.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) I and 4
113. Country A produces good X by using a lower quantity of labour and good Y
by using a higher quantity of labour as compared to country B. Assuming
labour theory of value, which of the following statements are correct?
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l. Country A has an absolute advantage in the production of good X.
2. Country A has a comparative advantage in the production of good X.
3. Country B has an absolute advantage in the production of good X.
4. Country B has a comparative advantage in the production of good X.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and 2 (b) I and 3 .
(c) 2 and 4 (d) I, 2 and 3
114. The following table gives the per unit cost of producing two goods X and Y
in two countries A and B, in suitable units:
Country Unit Cost of Production
Good X Good Y
A 75 90
B 125 100
Consider the following statements:
I. Country A has an absolute advantage in production of both goods X and Y.
2. Country B has an absolute advantage in production of both goods X and Y.
3. Country A has a comparative advantage in production of good X.
4. Country B has a comparative advantage in production of good Y.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
115. Which one of the following statements is correct? Capital Levy is a
(a) once-for-all wealth Tax
(b) once-for-all capital gains Tax
(c) once-for-all inheritance Tax
(d) once-for-all estate duty
116. Consider the following statements: Indirect taxes have I.
inferior allocative
effects.
2. superior allocative effects.
3. regressive characteristics.
4. progressive characteristics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) I and 3
117. Relationship between which of the following is explained by the Laffer
curve?
(a) Rate of unemployment and inflation
(b) Two goods, X and Y, with regard to their exchange
(c) The tax rate and growth of total tax revenue
(d) The rate of growth of employment & supply of labour
118. Which one of the following statements is correct?
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The 'Excess Burden' of an excise tax is
(a) more if the elasticity of demand for the product is relatively larger
(b) more if the elasticity of demand for the product is relatively less
(c) more if the demand for the product is perfectly inelastic
(d) less if the elasticity of demand for the product is relatively larger
119. How can vertical equity in the distribution of tax burden be best achieved?
(a) By adopting proportional tax structure
(b) By adopting progressive tax structure
(c) By adopting regressive tax structure
(d) By adopting degressive tax structure
120.
Y D
S' F
G R
S
O X
K Q D
Quantity of Z
In a partial equilibrium analysis under constant cost conditions of
production, Q
and S are the pre-tax equilibrium of quantity and price of commodity Z,
respectively, on which an excise duty is imposed. As a result, the new
equilibrium price and quantity are S' and K, respectively. What is the extent of
excess burden on the consumer?
(a) Equal to the area KFD
(b) Equal to the area KFRQ
(c) Equal to the area SSFG
(d) Equal to the area GFR

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