1. Setting up of which one of the following is not stated in the constitution of India ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

2. A Money Bill in the Parliament can be introduced only with the recommendation of the—
(A) President of India
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Union Finance Minister

3. Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a state, having a population less than—
(A) Ten Lakhs
(B) Fifteen Lakhs
(C) Twenty Lakhs
(D) Twenty five Lakhs

4. Who has been the only Lok Sabha Speaker to have become the President of India ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(D) K. R. Narayanan

5. What does the Constitution (Ninety Second Amendment) Act, 2003 deal with ?
(A) Creation of a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) Cyber Crime
(C) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule
(D) Making right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right

6. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The National Security Adviser
(D) The Cabinet Secretary

7. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The President
(D) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

8. The electoral college that elects the Vice-President of India consists of—
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Elected members of both the houses of Parliament
(C) Members of both the houses of Parliament
(D) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of states

9. Which one of the following political theories advocates the withering away of the state and ushering in a new society in which there will be no state and no ceasses ?
(A) Liberalism
(B) Democratic Socialism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fabian Socialism

10. Recently, who among the following took over as Chief Election Commissioner from B.B. Tandon ?
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) N. Gopalaswamy
(C) Y. V. Reddy
(D) S. Y. Qureshi

11. When did the United Nations Organization come into existence ?
(A) October 24, 1945
(B) October 24, 1943
(C) November 26, 1945
(D) November 26, 1943

12. According to the Preamble of the Constitution, India is a—
(A) Sovereign democratic socialist republic
(B) Sovereign socialist secular republic
(C) Sovereign democratic republic
(D) Sovereign socialist secular democratic republic

13. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(State) (Full statehood granted in)
(a) Goa 1. 1966
(b) Haryana 2. 1972
(c) Meghalaya 3. 1975
(d) Sikkim 4. 1987
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3

14. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Lok Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President of India.
2. In the Rajya Sabha, a maximum of 2 members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Who among the following has not been a Chief Justice of India ?
(A) R. C. Lahoti
(B) G. B. Pattanaik
(C) S. S. Gill
(D) V. N. Khare

16. Who among the following had the longest tenure as the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Lal Bhadur Shastri

17. Who presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Speaker
(B) Vice President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

18. Where is the headquarters of the UNO ?
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) New York
(D) Paris

19. What is the maximum time interval permissible between two successive sessions of the Parliament ?
(A) Four months
(B) Six months
(C) Eight months
(D) Nine months

20. What is the minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years

21. Which are the two states (other than UP) having the highest representation in Lok Sabha ?
(A) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar and Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan

22. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?
(A) 6 years
(B) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(C) Upto 65 years of age
(D) Upto 64 years of age

23. The Finance Commission is premarily Concerned with recommending to the president about—
(A) The principle governing grants in aid to be given to the states
(B) Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the centre and the states
(C) Neither (A) Nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

24. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international
treaties—
(A) With the consent of all the states
(B) With the consent of majority of states
(C) With the consent of states conerned
(D) Without the consent of any state

25. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of—
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Seven days
(D) Fourteen days

26. The first day session of the Indian Constituent Assembly was chaired by—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

27. Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development ?
(A) Department of elementary education and literacy
(B) Department of Secondary and Higher Education
(C) Department of technical education
(D) Department of women and child development

28. Who is known as the First Law Officer of India ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Law Minister of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Law Secretary

29. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be remvoed—
(A) By the President
(B) On the address from both Houses of Parliament
(C) By the Supreme Court
(D) On the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court

30. Who will decide the office of profit ?
(A) President and Governor
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Public Service Commission

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (A)
12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C) 21. (B) 22. (B)
23. (D) Finance Commission is a constitutional body and plays an important role in settling centre state financial relations.
24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (A)

 

31. To be officially recognised by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as an opposition Group, a party or coalition of parties must have at least—
(A) 55 members
(B) 60 members
(C) 80 members
(D) 1/3 of total members of the Lok Sabha

32. Which of the following is not included in the directive principles of state policy ?
(A) Prohibition of liquor
(B) Right to work
(C) Equal wage for equal work
(D) Right to information

33. Right to education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is—
(A) Included in the directive principles of state policy
(B) A Fundamental Right
(C) A Statutory Right
(D) None of these

34. How many times has financial emergency been declared in India so far ?
(A) 5 times
(B) 4 times
(C) Once
(D) Never

35. Which of the following Motions can the Council of Ministers in India move ?
(A) No confidence Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Confidence Motion

36. Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the consolidated fund of India?
(A) Salary and allowances of the President of India
(B) Salary and allowances of the Governor of a State of India
(C) Salary and allowances of the justice of the Supreme Court of India
(D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

37. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the
Parliament ?
(A) 14 days
(B) 1 Month
(C) 3 Months
(D) 6 Months

38. Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographic area as a scheduled area ?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

39. Given below are two statements—
Assertion (A) : Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and state legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission.
Reason (R) : Power of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

40. Who has given this statement ?
"Man is born free but he is always in chains."
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseaue
(C) Benthan
(D) Robert Mill

41. A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(D) Chairman of the UPSC

42. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists—
List-I (Names)
(a) Hobbes
(b) Rouseau
(c) Locke
(d) Hitler
List-II (Events)
1. French Revolution
2. Glorious Revolution
3. Execution of Charles I
4. Second World War
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 2 4 3

43. The bureaucracy performs—
(A) Only administrative functions
(B) Only judicial functions
(C) Only legislative functions
(D) Administrative as well as quasi-judicial and quasi-legislative functions

44. The President of the Union of India has the same constitutional authority as the—
(A) British Monarch
(B) President of USA
(C) President of Pakistan
(D) President of France

45. Which organ is the custodian of the National purse ?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislature
(D) Civil Servants

46. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

47. Who can be the member of the Rajya Sabha but can speak both in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha ?
(A) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
(C) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha

48. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) G. B. Pant
(D) Devi Lal

49. The right to vote in elections to a Parliament is a—
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Political Right
(C) Legal Right
(D) Natural Right

50. Under which constitution amendment, 10 fundamental duties of the citizens were included in the constitution ?
(A) 24th
(B) 38th
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th

51. 'Right to constitutional remedy' has been mentioned in which article of the constitution ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 35
(D) 32

52. A motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved in Lok Sabha if it is
supported by at least—
(A) 50 members
(B) 55 members
(C) 100 members
(D) One-fifth of total number

53. The function of the Protem Speaker is to—
(A) Conduct the proceedings of Houses in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
(B) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(C) Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
(D) Checks if the election certificates of the members are in order

54. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as—
(A) The guardian of people's liberties
(B) The guardian of public money
(C) The chief financial adviser of Govt. of India
(D) All of the above

55. 'Vote on Account' is a grant voted/passed by Parliament—
(A) After the budget and grant has been voted/passed by Lok Sabha
(B) Grant to manage the administrative work in Interim period till budget and grant for financial year are passed
(C) Passage of account of expenditure is actually done during last year
(D) Approval of account of public undertakings

56. The defeat of Government in Rajya Sabha leads to—
(A) Its dismissal by the President
(B) Resignation by Prime Minister
(C) Advice by President to Prime Minister to relinquish office
(D) None of these

57. The Parliament or a state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) Does not has this power

58. The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with—
(A) Anti-defection legislation
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Land Reforms
(D) Distribution of powers between the Union and States

59. The 84th Amendment Act has frozen the total number of existing seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of 1971 census. They shall remain unaltered till the first census to be taken after the year—
(A) 2010
(B) 2015
(C) 2021
(D) 2026

60. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Accounts committee
(b) Committee on petitions
(c) Joint committee on stock market scan
(d) Department committees
List-II
1. Adhoc committee
2. Standing committees
3. Financial committee
4. Functional committee
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3

Answers with Hints
31. (A) The number of members of the opposition party should be at least one-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
32. (D)
33. (B) The Right to Education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years has been included as a fundamental right in the Article—21A of the constitution through the Constitution Amendment Act, 86 of the year 2002.
34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (D)
44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C) 51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C)
54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (A)59. (D) 60. (C)

 

61. The provisions related to official language of India can be amended by—
(A) Simple majority
(B) Minimum 2/3 majority
(C) Minimum ¾ majority
(D) Cannot be amended

62. Who among the following can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Vice-President
(B) Solicitor-General
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Attorney-General

63. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Officers)
(a) Vice-President of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Solicitor General of India
(d) Attorney General of India
List-II (Institutions)
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Meeting of Lok Sabha
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Supreme Court
5. Committee on public undertakings.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 4 2 3

64. The National Development Council (NDC)—
1. Discusses the progress of the National Plan.
2. Suggests the ways to achieve goals of the National Plan.
3. Gives guidelines to for mulate the National Plan.
4. Suggests plan allocations.
Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

65. The Indian Parliament cannot legislate on the subject of state list unless—
1. The President of India directs it to do so.
2. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary to do so in National interests.
3. The speaker of the Vidhan Sabha certifies that the legislation is necessary.
4. There is National emergency
Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 4

66. Prior Sanction of the President of India is required before introducing the bill, in the Parliament on—
1. Formation of a new state.
2. Affecting taxation in which states are interested.
3. Altering the boundaries of the states.
4. Money bill
Considering the above statements.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

67. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are not correct ?
1. In order to be Vice-President a person must be qualified for election as a number of the house
of the people.
2. A member of the state legislative can seek election to that office.
3. The term of the office of the Vice-President is the same as that of the President.
4. He can be removed through a formal impleachment.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

68. Given below are two statements—
Assertion (A) : The supreme command of the defence forces is vested in the president.
Reason (R) : The President's power as commander in-chief are in dependent of legislative control.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

69. The stages in the normal financial legislation included.
1. Presentation of the budget.
2. Discussion of the budget.
3. Passing of Appropriation bill.
4. Vote on Account.
5. Passing of the finance bill.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5

70. In case the post of President of India falls vacant and there is also no Vice-President, than who among the following would be the acting President ?
(A) Viec-Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

71. Which one of the following describes India a secular state ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble to the constitution
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) Directive principles

72. Which one of the following statements about the state Governors is not true ?
(A) He is a part of the state legislature
(B) He can pardon a sentence of death
(C) He appoints judges of the state High Court
(D) He has no emergency powers

73. Which of the following constitutional amendment intergrated Sikkim as a full-fledged state of the Indian union ?
(A) 34th
(B) 35th
(C) 36th
(D) 37th

74. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati Raj system have no powers of awarding imprisonment except in the state of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Jammu-Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal

75. Which of the following Indian states has no Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland

76. Which one of the following states has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat

77. Which one of the following is the subject of concurrent list ?
(A) Police
(B) Criminal matters
(C) Radio and Television
(D) Foreign affairs

78. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Article-164
(b) Article-155
(c) Article-75
(d) Article-54
List-II
1. Appointment of the state Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.
2. Appointment of the Governor.
3. Appointment of the Union Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
4. Election of the President of India.
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 5
(C) 2 1 3 5
(D) 2 1 4 5

79. Who among the following gave the following statements about the Indian constitution ?
"Indian constitution strikes a good balance between extreme regedity and too much flexibility."
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) M. V. Pylee
(C) Alexanderowicz
(D) K. C. Wheare

80. Which one of the following is the period for the legislative council to detain the ordinary bills ?
(A) 3 Months
(B) 4 Months
(C) 6 Months
(D) 14 days

81. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement ?
(A) It can change the judgement
(B) It cannot change the judgement
(C) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement
(D) Only the ministry of law can change the judgement

82. The Indian constitution borrowed the directive principles of the state policy from the constitution of which of the following countries ?
(A) United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain
(B) United States of America (USA)
(C) Ireland
(D) Japan

83. Which among the following is the correct expression of the term 'Secular' in India ?
(A) India has many religious
(B) Indians have religious freedom
(C) To follow the religion depends upon the will of an individual
(D) There is no religion of the state in India

84. Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India ?
1. Vice-Chairman of the planning commission.
2. Chairman of the finance commission.
3. Chief Ministers of the union territories.
Select the correct answer by using the following codes.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) Only 1 is correct

85. Which one of the following Indian states does not keep its own High Court ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Sikkim
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur

86. Which of the following is not more a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to freedom
(C) Right to property
(D) Right against exploitation

87. The Indian constitution establishes India as a—
(A) Theocracy
(B) Republic
(C) Democratic Republic
(D) None of the above

88. The total number of fundamental duties mentioned is the constitution of India now is—
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13

89. Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) President at the advice of Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state

90. Monthly salary of President of India is—
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 8,000
(C) Rs. 15,000
(D) Rs. 1,50,000

Answers :
61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (C)
69. (D) 70. (D) 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A)
79. (D) 80. (A) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B)89. (D) 90. (D)

91. All the following are fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution except—
(A) The right to equality
(B) The right against exploitation
(C) The right to adequate means of livelihood
(D) The right to freedom of religion

92. The total number of members in the legislative council of a state cannot exceed—
(A) One-fourth of the total numbers in the legislative Assembly
(B) One-third of the total number of members of the legislative five assembly
(C) One-sixth of the total number of members of the legislative Assembly
(D) No such limit has been fixed

93. Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the—
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 40th Amendment
(C) 39th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment

94. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 500
(B) 525
(C) 542
(D) 552

95. How many language have been recognised by the constitution ?
(A) 13
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 22

96. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

97. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of—
(A) The Speaker
(B) The Chief Minister
(C) The Governor
(D) The President

98. To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have completed the age of—
(A) 35 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 25 years

99. The Planning Commission of India is—
(A) A statutory body
(B) An advisory body
(C) A constitutional body
(D) An independent and autonomous body

100. Which of the following states/union territories has a Legislative Assembly consisting of only 30 members ?
(A) Puducherry
(B) Mizoram
(C) Goa
(D) All the above

101. The Attorney General of India is appointed by—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President of India
(D) The UPSC

102. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha—
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

103. Which of the following states/union territories have a common High Court ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(D) Assam and Bengal

104. The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was—
(A) 43rd
(B) 41st
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th

105. The Union Cabinet is responsible to—
(A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The Lok Sabha only
(D) The electorate

106. The Governor of a state in India is—
(A) Directly elected by the people of the state
(B) Appointed by the Prime Minister
(C) Appointed by the President
(D) Appointed by the State Chief Minister

107. The total number of members of legislative council can in no case be less than—
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) No minimum strength has been fixed

108. The right to vote in India is given to all people on the basis of—
(A) Education
(B) Age
(C) Property
(D) Religion

109. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state is—
(A) 450
(B) 500
(C) 400
(D) 525

110. Parliamentary system in India has been borrowed from which country ?
(A) America
(B) Britain
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland

111. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 20

112. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right against exploitation
(B) Equal pay for equal work
(C) Equality before law
(D) Right to freedom of religion

113. Panchyati Raj is organised at the—
(A) Block level
(B) Village and block level
(C) Village, block and district level
(D) Village, block, district and state level

114. Which of the following courts is responsible for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Both (A) and (B) above

115. Consider the following statements—
1. In Part IX of the constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2. The Eleventh schedule of the constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India and the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

116. Consider the following statements–
1. The Governor of a state may reserve a Bill for consideration of the President of India.
2. The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinace issued in the state at any time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

117. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Parliamentary system of India. If the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the power to with hold his assent from the Bill.
2. As per the constitution of India the union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

118. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharti vs The state of Kerala related to which one of the following issues ?
(A) Acquiring private land for Government use
(B) Exploitation of women at work place
(C) Basic feature of the constitution of India
(D) Reservation of jobs for the OBCs in the Government service

119. Assertion (A) : In the Indian system, the executive cannot impose any tax without legislative sanction.
Reason (R) : It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorised by an appropriation Act.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

120. Consider the following statements—
1. The design of the National flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
2. The National Anthem was first sung on 27th December, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers with Hints
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D)
94. (D) According to the constitution, maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552. States are represented by 530 members and the Union Territories by 20 members. The President nominates two Anglo Indian members if that community does not have sufficient representation in the house. The present strength of Lok Sabha is 545. There are 530 members from states 13 members from Union Territories and two members are nominated by the President.
95. (D) There are 22 languages in the 8th schedule of the constitution.
96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (C) 105. (C)
106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (B)
111. (A) The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from the field of Literature, Art, Science and Social Work.
112. (B) The constitution originally classified the fundamental rights into seven groups but with the elimination of right to property (Art. 31) by the 44th Amendment Act, in 1978, there are now only six groups of fundamental rights.
Rights of equality (Art. 14-18)
Right to freedom (Art. 19-21)
Right aginst exploitation (Art. 23 and 24)
Right to freedom of religion (Art. 25-28)
Cultural and education rights (Art. 29-31)
Right to constitutional remedies (Art. 32-35)
113. (C) Panchayati Raj Structure is organised at top level (district), Middle level (Block Tehsil, Taluk) and Base level Village or group villages) Districts—Zila Parishad consists of the president of the Panchayat Samities and other members elected, nominated and co-opted.
114. (A) The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights is itself a guaranteed rights as provided for in Art. 32 of the constitution. Thus whenever the state or any other authority encroaches upon a citizen's rights. The Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue directions or orders or writs, whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement of the right.
The important writs are—
Habeas Corpus, Mandamus Prohibition, Certiorari and Quowarranto.
115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (C) 119. (C)120. (C)

121. Consider the following statements—
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the council of union ministers into three ranks.
2. A members of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a union minister and he enjoys the right to vote
in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

122. Consider the following statements—
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed only on an address from both Houses of Parliament.
2. In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General has no control over the issue of money from the consolidated fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

123. Consider the following statements—
1. For a person to be eligible for election as the Vice-President of India, he must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
2. No person has ever been elected as the Vice-President of India for a second term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

124. Which of the following are included in the Constitution of India as the directive principles of state policy ?
1. Separation of judiciary from executive.
2. Participation of workers in management of industry.
3. Equal justice and free legal aid.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

125. Magna Carta in England led to the Development of—
(A) Constitutional law
(B) International law
(C) Labour law
(D) Criminal law

126. Which one of the following countries does not follow the West Minster system of Parliament ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Singapore
(C) Australia
(D) Switzerland

127. Who was the protem Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) C. Raja Gopalachari
(C) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

128. The idea of Directive principles of state policy has been borrowed from the Constitution of—
(A) Japan
(B) Canada
(C) France
(D) Ireland

129. Which of the following states does not bear Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Haryana
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

130. When did the Akali Movement start ?
(A) 1901
(B) 1911
(C) 1921
(D) 1931

131. The Panchayati Raj Institution at the block level is known as—
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Zilla Parishad
(D) None of the above

132. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

133. Which part of the following is described as the soul of Indian Constitution ?
(A) Directive principles of state policy
(B) The preamble of the Constitution
(C) Fundamental rights
(D) None of the above

134. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and—
(A) 12 judges
(B) 15 judges
(C) 20 judges
(D) 30 judges

135. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Finance Commission

136. The approach paper for the 11th five year plan of India was approved by National Development Council in its meeting held on—
(A) 7th November
(B) 20th November
(C) 9th December
(D) 10th January

137. Members of Constituent Assembly were—
(A) Elected by provincial assemblies
(B) Elected directly by people
(C) Nominated by government
(D) Represented only by the princely states

138. The Directive Principles of State Policy of India have similarity with—
(A) The Constitution of U. K.
(B) The Constitution of U. S. A.
(C) The Constitution of Ireland
(D) None of the above

139. No. of municipal towns in West Bengal, at present—
(A) 119
(B) 104
(C) 256
(D) 191

140. Under which article of the Constitution of India can the Indian Parliament make laws under the residuary powers ?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 249
(C) Article 250
(D) Article 251

141. Who, amongst the following, was the Chairperson of the Drafting Committee set up by the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) None of the above

142. The executive powers of the state are vested in the governor under article of the Constitution—
(A) Article 154 (1)
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 356

143. During which of the following periods did the Constituent Assembly deliberate upon finalization of the Constitution of India ?
(A) November, 1946 – November, 1949
(B) November, 1947 – November, 1949
(C) December, 1946 – November, 1949
(D) December, 1947 – November, 1949

144. Number of districts in West Bengal at present is—
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 17
(D) 16

145. Number of Panchayat Samities in West Bengal at present is—
(A) 341
(B) 344
(C) 333
(D) 334

146. How many members were initially there in the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) 300
(B) 304
(C) 308
(D) 310

147. The Government of West Bengal introduced democratic elections to the local bodies in—
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1979
(D) 1980

148. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of India ?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1919
(B) The Government of India Act, 1935
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above

149. In which year did the Supreme Court of India dismiss the petitions of the cement, fertilizer and sugar industries challenging the jute packing material Act, 1987 ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1990
(C) 1993
(D) 1996

150. The union ministers hold office during the pleasure of—
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

Answers with Hints
121. (D) 122. (C) 123. (A) 124. (D) 125. (A) 126. (D) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (A) 130. (C) 131. (B)
132. (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India, Dr. B. R. Ambedakar was the chairman of the constitution drafting committee.
133. (B) Preamble is described as the spirit of the Constitution. It constitutes the philosophy embodying the ideals and aspirations to which the National Movement committed it self.
134. (D) 135. (C) 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (C) 139. (A) 140. (A) 141. (C) 142. (A) 143. (C)
144. (B) 145. (A) 146. (A) 147. (D) 148. (B)149. (C) 150. (A)

151. What was the number of the princely states in India at the time of partition ?
(A) 555
(B) 558
(C) 560
(D) 562

152. Which of the following is true for the Indian judicial system ?
(A) It is controlled by the Parliament
(B) The Supreme Court of India is controlled by the Parliament and the High Courts are controlled by the State Legislative Assemblies
(C) It is an independent institution
(D) None of the above

153. Who is the 37th Chief Justice of India ?
(A) Ram Jethmalani
(B) Y. K. Sabharwal
(C) Bijubhai Patnaik
(D) K. G. Balkrishnan

154. The Finance Commission is constituted under arti-0cle .……....... of the constitution of India.
(A) 275
(B) 280
(C) 282
(D) None of the above

155. In which general election did the Congress Party lose majority in the Parliament for the first time ?
(A) 1967
(B) 1977
(C) 1980
(D) None of the above

156. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976 ?
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) Giani Zail Singh
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma

157. Assertion (A) : The number of the members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

158. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
(B) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
(C) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor talkes over
(D) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election the Vice-President of India

159. Consider the following statements :
1. A money bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a money bill nor amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

160. Which one of the following is not a parliamentary committee ?
(A) Demands for grants committee
(B) Committee on public accounts
(C) Committee on public under takings
(D) Committee on estimates

161. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of union territories of India in the increasing order of there area ?
(A) Puducherry – Lakshadweep – Chandigarh – Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Lakshadweep – Chandigarh – Andaman and Nicobar Islands – Puducherry
(C) Lakshadweep – Chandigarh Puducherry – Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Puducherry – Chandigarh Andaman and Nicobar Islands – Lakshadweep

162. What was the scheme to reduce interest burden of the state Government of India through gradual conversion of high cost debt into a low cost debt known as ?
(A) Debt – swap scheme
(B) Debt – write off scheme
(C) Grants–in–aid scheme
(D) Debt consolidation scheme

163. Which one of the following states/Uts of the country has more than fifty per cent tribal population of the total population ?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Puducherry

164. The objective of the Eklavya Model Residential Schools is to provide quality education to which of the following ?
(A) Scheduled caste students
(B) Tribal students
(C) Orphan girl students
(D) Unorganized women labour

165. Under which article of the Constitution of India can the President of India be impeached ?
(A) Article 61
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 356

166. Assertion (A) : The council of ministers in the union of India is collectively responsible both to Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the ministers of the Union Government.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

167. Consider the following statements :
1. The judges (inquiry) bill 2006 contemplates to establish a judicial council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 a woman can file a petition before a Ist class judicial magistrate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

168. Which of the following constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the centre and in a state must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state respectively ?
(A) 91st
(B) 93rd
(C) 95th
(D) 97th

169. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India :
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

170. Who was the speaker of the first Lok-Sabha ?
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K. M. Munshi
(D) U. N. Dhebar

171. Consider the following statements :
1. The mode of removal of a judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

172. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full states of the Indian Union ?
(A) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana

173. Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in—
(A) High Court alone
(B) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) All courts down to the District Courts
(D) None of these

174. What are the residuary powers ?
(A) Powers which are enumerated in the state list
(B) Powers which are included in the state list
(C) Powers which are enumerated in the concurrent list
(D) Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists

175. 'Diet' is the name of the Parliament of which Nation ?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Vietnam
(D) Germany

176. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to freedom
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

177. The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Switzerland
(D) Canada

178. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian secularism as 'Sarve Dharma Samabhav' ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Jakir Hussain
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Giani Zail Singh

179. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the president ?
(A) Five
(B) Twelve
(C) One-fifth of the total members
(D) Ten

180. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 15

Answers with Hints
151. (D) 152. (C) 153. (D) 154. (B) 155. (B) 156. (C)
157. (D) The President under Article 318 (a) of Constitution of India determines the number of members of the commission and their conditions of service and make provision with respect to the number of members.
158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (A) 161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (B) 164. (B)
165. (A) Under Article 61 the President can be impeached. Its bill can be introduced in either of both the houses of parliament.
166. (D) According to the Article (75) the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of the people. Ministers may be chosen from among members of either house and a minister who is a member of one house has a right to speak in and to take part in the proceeding of the other house he has no 'right' to vote in the house of which he is not a member Article (88).
167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (B) 171. (C) 172. (B) 173. (B) 174. (D) 175. (B)
176. (B) Right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th amendment of the Constitution in 1979.
177. (A) 178. (A) 179. (B)
180. (B) Article 15—Any discrimination on the basis of race, caste, birth place or religion is illegal.
Article 16—Equality to all citizens in employment.
Article 18—Abolition of all titles except military honour or title conferred on the basis of educational accomplishments.