1. The probability of hitting a target from

one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If

both gun are fired at the same time, the

probability of hitting the target is

(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100

(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20

2. If the three vectors a, b and c are

coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c

is

(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero

(C) Unity (D) Non of these

3. Limit sin x is

x

(A) not defined (B) 1

(c) zero (D) -1

4. The Laplace transform of sin

(A) 18 (B) 18

S(S

(C) 18 (B) 18

(S+36) (S+36)(S+4)

5. The function

x

f(x)

2x+3 for x>3

(A) continuous over the entire number scale

(B) continuous at x=3 but discontinuous at

all other points

(C) discontinuous at x=3 but continuous at

all other points

(D) discontinuous everywhere

6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force

with which it hits the obstacle depends

upon its

(A) average velocity

(B) velocity at the instant of collision

(C) initial velocity

(D) all of these

7. The wavelength of visible light is of the

order of

(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm

(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å

8. Whenever a source of sound moves

towards an observer

(A) the frequency heard by the observer is

less than that of the source

(B) the frequency heard by the observer is

greater than that of the source

(C) the frequency heard by the observer is

unchanged

(D) the wavelength of sound heard is

greater than that of the sound emitted

9. Moving electric charges will interact

with

(A) electric field only

(B) magnetic field only

(C) both of these

(D) none of these

10. Gamma radiation is most similar to

(A) sound waves (B) X-ray

(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons

11. The fundamental particle responsible

for keeping the nucleus together is

(A) meson (B) anti proton

(C) positron (D) muon

12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume

and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer

pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial

pressure of oxygen is close to

(A) 155 mm of Hg

(B) 310 mm of Hg

(C) 465 mm of Hg

(D) 162 mm of Hg

13. In the electrolytic cell

(A) electrical energy is converted into

chemical energy

(B) chemical energy is converted into

electrical energy

(C) mechanical energy is converted into

potential energy

(D) potential energy is converted into

kinetic energy

14. The force required to maintain a body at

constant speed in free space is equal to

(A) the mass of the body

(B) zero

(C) the weight of the body

(D) the force required to stop it

15. If the length of a spring is halved, the

spring constant becomes

(A) half (B) 1/4

(C) double (D) four times

16. The coefficient of static friction

depends on

(A) the material of the bodies in contact

(B) the quality of surface finish of the

bodies

(C) the presence of foreign matter between

the surface

(D) all of these

17. The units of angular impulse in SI

system are

(A) Nms (B) Ns

(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m

18. A particle is projected with a velocity

√

3 ½ ½

(A) gR (B) gR

2 3

½ ½

(C) gR (D) 2gR

3

19. Stainless steel contains iron and

(A) Chromium and nickel

(B) Chromium and carbon

(C) Nickel and carbon

(D) Chromium and manganese

20. The property of material by which it

offers resistance to scratching or

indentation is called

(A) Brittleness

(B) Hardness

(C) Toughness

(D) Resilience

21. The failure of a material due to repeated

stressing is known as

(A) Creep

(B) Fracture

(C) Fatigue

(D) Brittle Fracture

22. The electric device which blocks DC

but allows AC is called

(A) Capacitor

(B) Inductor

(C) Amplifier

(D) Transducer

23. When a charge is moved from one point

to another in an electric field, the work

done is

(A) independent of the path

(B) zero along the direction of the field

(C) measured in Joules per metre

(D) measure in Volt per metre

24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is

(A) Paper (B) Ceramic

(C) Polyester (D) Mica

25. A zener diode operates

(A) In an extremely high forward bias

(B) In an extremely low reverse bias

(C) In an extremely low forward bias

(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down

voltage

26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell

is often used as a measure of its

(A) Rate of discharge

(B) Operating temperature

(C) State of charge

(D) Life expectancy

27. An uniformly distributed load is one

which

(A) Acts at a point on a beam

(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole

length of a beam

(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length

of a beam

(D) loads the beam from one end only

28. A steam engine device which keeps the

speed of the engine, all loads, constant is

known as

(A) Flywheel

(B) Eccentric

(C) Connecting rod

(D) Governor

29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest

freezing point is

(A) Ammonia

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Freon – 11

(D) Freon – 22

30. Heat and work are

(A) Path functions

(B) Properties of a substance

(C) Point functions

(D) Absolute units

1. An impulse turbine

(A) Makes use of a draft tube

(B) Always operates submerged

(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity

head through the vanes

(D) Is most suited for low head installations

2. Power required to drive a centrifugal

pump is directly proportional to

(A) Diameter of its impeller

(B) Square of diameter of its impeller

(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller

(D) Fourth power of diameter of its

impeller

3. The locus of the common point on the

two meshing spur gears is known as

(A) Addendum circle

(B) Duodenum circle

(C) Pitch circle

(D) Base circle

4. When there is a reduction in amplitude

over every cycle of vibration then the body

is said to have

(A) Free vibration

(B) Forced vibration

(C) Damped vibration

(D) Natural vibration

5. For machining at high speed the tool

material should have

(A) Wear resistance

(B) Red hardness

(C) Toughness

(D) All of these

6. MIG welding is

(A) A gas welding process

(B) An electric resistance welding process

(C) A electric resistance welding process

(D) A forge welding process involving high

temperatures and low pressures

7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to

shrink when it solidifies is known is

(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability

(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness

8. Rivets are generally specified by

(A) Overall length

(B) Shank diameter

(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed

(D) Diameter of head

9. Which of the following is steady flow

compressor

(A) Reciprocating compressor

(B) Centrifugal compressor

(C) Voot blower

(D) Vane blower

10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on

(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle

(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle

11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals

(A) Decreases with rise in temperature

(B) Does not vary with temperature

(C) Increases with rise in temperature

(D) Remains constant with rise in

temperature

12. During adiabatic saturation process, air

property which remains constant, is known

as

(A) Wet bulb temperature

(B) Dry bulb temperature

(C) Relative humidity

(D) Specific humidity

13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to

refrigeration operates

(A) On open air system

(B) On vapour compression system

(C) On vapour absorption system

(D) On none of these

14. The gears in which axes of the shaft

connected by them, intersect, are known as

(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears

(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train

15. Shot peening

(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature

(B) Changes the crystalline structure at

materials

(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts

(D) Refines the grain structure

16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released

by the fuel is absorbed by

(A) Atmospheric air

(B) Water

(C) Metal container

(D) Bomb, water and metal container

17. Nitriding is done

(A) On low carbon steels only

(B) To impart blue colour to steels

(C) To improve machinability

(D) To increase surface hardness

18. The extent of cold work that a metal can

withstand depends on

(A) Purity of metal

(B) Carbon percentage

(C) Ductility

(D) Room temperature

19. Which engine has the highest air fuel

ratio

(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine

(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine

20. Annealing of steels is done to

(A) Remove internal stresses

(B) Produce soft core under hard surface

(C) Produce hard core under soft surface

(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks

1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will

weigh as much as 8 gram of iron

(Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in

water

(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram

(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram

2. Which of the two forces are important in

floating bodies

(A) inertial, pressure

(B) buoyancy, gravity

(C) gravity, inertial

(D) pressure, viscous

3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio

of kinematics viscosity to thermal

diffusivity is known as

(A) Prandtl Number

(B) Nusselt Number

(C) Reynold's Number

(D) Stanton Number

4. Ozone is an

(A) isomer of oxygen

(B) allotrope of oxygen

(C) isobar of oxygen

(D) isotope of oxygen

5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is

maximum at

(A) inlet

(B) outlet

(C) venture

(D) does not change within a carburetor

6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to

50 m/s. The force on it is

(A) 500 N

(B) 2,500 N

(C) 512 N

(D) Can not be determined from the given

data

7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends

on

(A) none of the following

(B) frequency

(C) temperature

(D) pressure

8. The source of solar energy is

(A) nuclear fission / fusion

(B) electromagnetic radiation

(C) chemical energy

(D) burning of hydrogen

9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the

pressure of an ideal gas because of

(A) increase in the number of

intermolecular collisions

(B) higher energy possessed by the

molecules than the theoretical estimates

(C) inter-molecular forces

(D) finite size of molecules

10. Which of the following is

dimensionless

(A) young's modulus of elasticity

(B) stress (C) strain

(D) shear stress

11. Which of the following relations is

incorrect

One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to

(A) 1013 bar

(B) 1013250 dynes/cm

(C) 1.033kgf/cm

(D) 735 mm of Hg

12. Which of the following is a scalar

quantity

(A) velocity of a gear

(B) acceleration of a car

(C) force in friction

(D) area of a triangle

13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas

turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the

diffuser would be

(A) converging (B) diverging

(C) diverging – converging

(D) converging – diverging

14. For adiabatic expansion with friction

through a nozzle, the following remains

constant

(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy

(C) stagnation enthalpy

(D) stagnation pressure

15. Separation of flow is caused by

(A) reduction of pressure in the direction

flow

(B) decrease in the boundary layer

thickness

(C) increase of pressure in the direction of

flow

(D) adverse pressure gradient

16. A pilot tube senses

(A) stagnation pressure

(B) average pressure

(C) maximum pressure

(D) velocity head pressure

17. Which of the following materials has

the higher value of Poisson' ratio

(A) rubber (B) copper

(C) steel (D) concrete

18. During forced vertex flow

(A) velocity increases with radius

(B) velocity decreases with radius

(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid

(D) inertial forces are significant

19. Hooke's law is valid within the limits of

proportionality. The limit of proportionality

depends on

(A) type of loading

(B) area of cross section

(C) type of material

(D) hardness of material

20. Euler's equation of fluid motion can be

integrated when it is assumed that

(A) the fluid is incompressible

(B) Bernoulli's equation is satisfied

(C) flow is rotational

(D) velocity potential exits and the density

is constant

1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to

work properly in a 120 volt supply the

required series resister in ohm is

(A) 10 (B) 20

(C) 30 (D) 40

2. According to Theremin's theorem, any

linear active network can be replaced by a

single voltage source

(A) in series with a single impedance

(B) in parallel with a single impedance

(C) in series with two impedances

(D) in parallel with two impedances

3. The internal resistance of ammeter is

(A) very small (B) very high

(C) infinite (D) zero

4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the

measurement of

(A) resistance (B) inductance

(C) conductance (D) capacitance

5. Which of the following is true about

series resonance

(A) The reactance becomes zero and

impedance becomes equal to resistance

(B) The current in the circuit becomes

maximum

(C) The voltage drop across inductance and

capacitance cancels each other

(D) All of the above statements are correct

6. A 3-

3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting

load. In this system

(A) all four wires will carry equal current

(B) neutral wire will carry no current

(C) neutral wire will carry both motor

current and lighting load current

(D) neutral wire will carry current only

when lighting load is switched on

7. Equalizing connections are required

when paralleling two

(A) alternators

(B) compound generators

(C) series generators

(D) both (B) and (C)

8. An ideal transformer is one which

(A) has a common core for its primary and

secondary windings

(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage

(C) has core of stainless steel and windings

of pure copper metal

(D) has interleaved primary and secondary

windings

9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase

induction motor is most similar to that of a

(A) synchronous motor

(B) repulsion-start induction motor

(C) transformer with a shorted secondary

(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor

10. In the forward region of its

characteristic, a diode appears as

(A) an OFF switch

(B) a high resistance

(C) a capacitor

(D) an ON switch

11. The common-emitter forward

amplification factor

(A) I

(C) I

12. A common emitter amplifier is

characterized by

(A) low voltage gain

(B) moderate power gain

(C) signal phase reversal

(D) very high output impedance

13. After V

a JFET, drain current I

(A) zero (B) low

(C) saturated (D) reversed

14. An electronic oscillator

(A) needs an external input

(B) provides its own input

(C) is nothing but an amplifier

(D) is just a dc/ac converter

15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to

(A) switch it off

(B) control its firing

(C) make it unidirectional

(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage

16. NAND and NOR gates are called

'universal' gates primarily because they

(A) are available everywhere

(B) are widely used in IC packages

(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR

and NOT gates

(D) are the easiest to manufacture

17. Registers and counters are similar in the

sense that they both

(A) count pulses

(B) store binary information

(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and

gates integrated on a single chip

(D) are in fact shift register

18. A flip-flop

(A) is a sequential logic device

(B) is a combinational logic device

(C) remembers what was previously stored

in it

(D) both (A) and (C)

19. An operational amplifier

(A) can be used to sum two or more signals

(B) can be used to subtract two or more

signals

(C) uses to principle of feed back

(D) all of the above

20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic

because

(A) greater fan-out is possible

(B) greater logic levels are possible

(C) greater fan-in is possible

(D) less power consumption is possible

1. In a communication system, noise is

most likely to get into the system

(A) at the transmitter

(B) in the channel

(C) in the information source

(D) at the destination

2. When modulation frequency is doubled,

the modulation index is halved, and the

modulating voltage remains constant, the

modulation system is

(A) amplitude modulation

(B) phase modulation

(C) frequency modulation

(D) angle modulation

3. Impedance inversion may be obtained

with

(A) a short – circuited stub

(B) an open – circuited stub

(C) a quarter – wave line

(D) a half – wave line

4. HIGH frequency waves are

(A) observed by the F

(B) reflected by D layer

(C) capable of use for long-distance

communication on the moon

(D) affected by the solar cycle

5. Which one of the following terms does

not apply to the Yagi-uda array

(A) Good band width

(B) Parasitic elements

(C) Folded diploe

(D) High gain

6. A duplexer is used

(A) to couple two different antennae to a

transmitter without mutual interference

(B) to allow one antenna to be used for

reception or transmission without mutual

interference

(C) to prevent interference between two

antennae when they are connected to

receiver

(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in

pulsed radar

7. Indicate which of the following system is

digital

(A) Pulse – Position modulation

(B) Pulse – Code modulation

(C) Pulse – Width modulation

(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation

8. A forward error correcting code corrects

errors only

(A) requiring partial retransmission of the

signal

(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal

(C) using parity to correct to errors in all

cases

(D) requiring no part of the signal to be

transmitted

9. A typical signal strength received from a

geosynchronous communication satellite is

of the order of

(A) a few milli watts

(B) kilo watts (C) watts

(D) few pico watts

10. Telephone traffic is measured

(A) with echo cancellers

(B) by the relative congestion

(C) in terms of the grade of service

(D) in erlangs

11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in

which

(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and

positive voltage respectively

(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by

negative and positive voltages respectively

(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than

logic 1 voltage level

(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic

1 voltage level

12. A half-adder can be made from

(A) two NAND gates

(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate

(C) an AND gate and an OR gate

(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate

13. Which of the following devices has its

characteristics very close to that of an ideal

current source.

(A) Field effect transistor

(B) Transistor in common bas mode

(C) Zener diode

(D) MOSFET

14. The main use of a common base

transistor amplifier is

(A) as voltage amplifier

(B) current amplifier

(C) for matching a high source impedance

to a low load impedance

(D) for rectification of a.c. signal

15. A class-B amplifier is biased

(A) Just at cut-off

(B) nearly twice cut-off

(C) at mid point of load line

(D) so that I

16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar

system is increased by a factor of 16, the

maximum range will be increased by a

factor of

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

17. A high PRF will (indicate the false

statement)

(A) make the returned echoes easier to

distinguish from noise

(B) make target tracking easier with conical

scanning

(C) increase the maximum range

(D) have no effect of the range resolution

18. A solution to the "blind speed" problem

in a radar system is to

(A) change the Doppler frequency

(B) vary the PRF

(C) use mono pulse

(D) use MTI

19. The number of active picture elements

in a television image depends on

(A) fly back time

(B) CRT screen size

(C) received band width

(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna

20. In a colour TV, the three primary

colours are

(A) red, orange and blue

(B) red, blue and green

(C) red, green and yellow

(D) red, orange and green

1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit

which

(A) makes logic decision

(B) allows electron flow only in one

direction

(C) works on binary algebra

(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values

2. NAND and NOR gates are called

'universal' gates primarily because they

(A) are available everywhere

(B) are widely used in IC packages

(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR

and NOT gates

(D) are the easiest to manufacture

3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy

is:

(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base

(B) byte-bit-field-record-file

(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base

(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base

4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more

than communicate data to and from a CPU

of a computer. How does a 'smart' terminal

differ from dumb terminal

(A) it has a primary memory

(B) it has a cache memory

(C) it has a micro processor

(D) it has an input device

5. The main distinguishing features of fifth

generation digital computer will be

(A) liberal use of micro processors

(B) artificial intelligence

(C) extremely low cost

(D) versatility

6. Which of the following terms is not used

to refer to the recording density of a disk

(A) mega-density (B) single-density

(C) double-density (D) quad-density

7. The two kinds of main memory are

(A) primary and secondary

(B) random and sequential

(C) ROM and RAM

(D) central and peripheral

8. Which one of the following is not an

octal number

(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102

9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are

very difficult to read

(A) directly

(B) in bright light

(C) in dull light

(D) both (B) and (C)

10. Both computer instructions and memory

addresses are represented by

(A) character codes

(B) binary codes

(C) binary word

(D) parity bit

11. A computer program that converts an

entire program into machine language at

one time is called a/an

(A) interpreter (B) simulator

(C) compiler (D) commander

12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board

repeat as long as we hold them down. Such

type of keys are known as

(A) typematic keys

(B) functional keys

(C) automatic keys

(D) alphabetic keys

13. What does the acronym ISDN stands

for

(A) Indian Standard Digital Network

(B) Integrated Services Digital Network

(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network

(D) Integrated Services Data Network

14. Two basic types of operating system are

(A) sequential and direct

(B) batch and time sharing

(C) direct and interactive

(D) batch and interactive

15. Which of the following entity does not

belong to word processing

(A) characters (B) words

(C) cells (D) paragraphs

16. A schema describes

(A) data elements

(B) records and filer

(C) record relationship

(D) all of the above

17. Which of the following is not a tool

used to manage and control schedule

performance

(A) CAD (B) PERT

(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart

18. An expert system differs from a data

base program in that only an expert system

(A) contains declarative knowledge

(B) contains procedural knowledge

(C) features the retrieval of stored

information

(D) experts users to draw own conclusion

19. The virtual memory addressing

capability of 80386 is

(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB

(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB

20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel

consists of

(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor

(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor

only

(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and

memory management unit (MMU) only

(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor,

memory management unit and a cache

memory